GS Mini Marathon important GK July 2024

In this session, we discuss about GS Mini Marathon important GK July 2024 with MCQ. These questions and answers are included of History, geography, general science. are very important for all types of examinations, which will be conducted by government for jobs. So let’s begin.

GS Mini Marathon important GK July 2024

GS Mini Marathon important GK July 2024

1. History:

Q1) Where was the Paik Rebellion started in 1857?

A. Banpur
B. Kujanga
C. Ranapur
D. Berhampur

Answer: D. Khurda

Q2) Kalidas, better known as the Indian Shakespeare, for his Meghadut, Kumarsambhab, Raghuvansha and Abhigyan Shakuntalam lived in?

A. 2nd Century AD
B. 3rd Century AD
C. 4th Century AD
D. 1st Century AD

Answer: C. 4th Century AD

Q3) Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore, drew the idea of nationalism when he was a member ofthe?

A. Congress Party
B. Jacobein Club in France
C. Home Rule League
D. None of these

Answer: B. Jacobein Club in France

Q4) Which of the following events did not occur in the Indian history in 1930?

A. 12th March -Dandi March
B. 6th April-Civil Disobedient Movement
C. 1st Round Table Conference in London without Congress member
D. None of these

Answer: D. None of these

Q5) Which of the following is not a classical dance form of India?

A. Kathak
B. Manipuri
C. Dandia
D. Odissi

Answer: C. Dandia

Q6) The British forces defeated Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah and put the traitor Mir Zafer on the throne of Bengane battle of-

A. Battle of Panipat
B. Battle of Plassey
C. Battle of Buxar
D. Battle of Terrain

Answer: A. Battle of Panipat

Q7) Who among the following became the first Martyr (Saheed) of Odisha durimg British regime?

A. Veer Surendra Sai
C. Laxman Naik
B. Jayce Rajguru
D. Raghunath Mohanty

Answer: C. Jaye Rajguru

Q8) Sarala Das, the great Odia poet, flourished in the court of:

A. Prataprudra Dev
B. Kapilendra Dev
C. Purusottam Dev
D. Narasimha Dev-1

Answer: B. Kapilendra Dev

2. Polity:

Q1) Which of the following is not a fundamental right

A. Right to equality
B. Right to freedom
C. Right against exploitation
D. Right to property

Answer: D. Right to property

Q2) In the Indian Constitution, which article is known as the soul of the Constitution?

A. Article 33
B. Article 32
C. Article 42
D. Article 17

Answer: B. Article 32

Q3) Which of the following languages is not in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution?

A. Persian
B. Sanskrit
C. Kashmiri
D. Nepali

Answer: A. Persian

Q4) If the President of India wants to resign, he has to address the letter of resignation to the:

A. Chief Justice of India
B. Prime Minister
C. Vice-President
D. Speaker

Answer: C. Vice-President

Q5) The Preamble to the Constitution declares India as

A. Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
B. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
C. Socialist, Democratic, Republic
D. Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic.

Answer: B. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

Q6) Which one of the following is largest of the Lok Sabha constituencies (area-wise) in India?

A. Arunachal East
B. Barmer
C. Kachchh
D. Kangra
E. Ladakh

Answer: E. Ladakh

Q7) The dominant thrust of which constitutional amendment in India was to reduce the role of the courts?

A. 41st
B. 42nd
C. 43rd
D. 44th
E. 45th

Answer: B. 42nd

Q8) The national anthem was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:

A. 24th Jan, 1950
B. 26th Jan, 1954
C. 26th Jan, 1952
D. 15th Aug, 1956

Answer: A. 24th Jan, 1950

3. General Science:

Q1) Right part of human heart contains

A. Oxygenated blood
C. Mixed blood
B. Deoxygenated blood
D. None of these

Answer: B. Deoxygenated blood

Q2) D.P.T. vaccine stands for which of the following?

A. Diarrhoea – Pertussis – Typhoid
C. Diptheria – Pneumonia – Typhoid
C. Diptheria – Pertussis – Tetanus
D. Diarrhoea – Pneumonia – Tetanus

Answer: C. Diptheria – Pertussis – Tetanus

Q3) The number of autosomes in a human body cell is

A. 44
B. 46
C. 42
D. 40

Answer: A. 44

Q4) Filtration unit of nephron is:

A. Kidney
C. Glomerulus
B. Bowman’s capsule
D. Tubular region

Answer: C. Glomerulus

Q5) The enzyme pepsin is inactive in stomach without the presence of which of the following acid?

A. Nitric acid
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Butyric acid

Answer: B. Hydrochloric acid

Q6) Haemoglobin shows maximum affinity with which of the following?

B. CO2
C. O2

Answer: A. CO

Q7) Human beings nutrition can be categorized as:

A. Saprophytic
B. Symbiotic
C. Parasitic
D. Holozoic

Answer: D. Holozoic

Q8) In photosynthesis process, atmospheric carbon dioxide is carbohydrates______to

A. Oxidised
B. Reduced
C. Neutralised
D. Burnt

Answer: B. Reduced

Q9) Involuntary action in body are controlled by

A. Medulla in forebrain
B. Medulla in mid brain
C. Medulla in hind brain
D. Medulla in spinal cord

Answer: C. Medulla in hind brain

Q10) Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from

A. Dendrite – axon – axonal end – cell body
B. Cell body – dendrite – axon – axonal end
C. Dendrite – cell body – axon – axonal end
D. Axonal end – axon – cell body – dendrite

Answer: C. Dendrite – cell body – axon – axonal end

Q11) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are what kind of plant nutrients?

A. Micro-nutrients
B. Macro-nutrients
C. Non-essential nutrients
D. None of these

Answer: B. Macro-nutrients

Q12) Total amount of ATP produce in aerobic respiration is

A. 2 ATP
C. 36 ATP
B. 12 ATP
D. 38 ATP

Answer: D. 38 ATP

Q13) Cure for blindness is an example of the following advertisement:

A. Prohibited
B. Exempted
C. Bonafide
D. Permitted

Answer: A. Prohibited

Q14) Depletion of Ozone molecules in the stratosphere is due to

A. Halozen compound
B. Fluorine compound
C. Chlorine compound
D. None of these

Answer: C. Chlorine compound

4. Economics:

Q1) From which of the following sources is the collection of Central Revenue the highest in India?

A. Corporate lax
B. Customs duty
C. Excise duty
D. Other taxes
E. Personal income tax

Answer: A. Corporate lax

Q2) Which of the following does the Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana’ aim at?

A. Alleviating poverty through micro-enterprise
B. Ensuring employment guarantee to rural people
C. Generating employment in the rural areas
D. Meeting rural needs like rural roads, primary education, housing, drinking water and health care etc.
E. Strengthening the Panchayati Raj System in rural areas

Answer: C. Generating employment in the rural areas

Q3) In the production of which of the following commodities is India self-sufficient?

A. Edible oil
B. Fruits
C. Milk
D. Pulses

Answer: C. Milk

Q4) In banking, ‘ATM’ stands for:

A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode
B. Any Time Money
C. Automated Teller Machin
D. Automatic Transaction Machine

Answer: C. Automated Teller Machine

Q5) The term ‘FTZ’ stands for:

A. Fast Track Zone
B. Free Trade Zone
C. Foreign Trading Zone
D. Fast Trade Zone

Answer: B. Free Trade Zone

Q6) In between which two five-year plans was there a plan holiday in India?

A. Third and Fourth
B. Fourth and Fifth
C. Fifth and Sixth
D. Sixth and Seventh

Answer: A. Third and Fourth

4. Environment and Geography:

Q1) Which hydel project in Odisha has the highest hydro-power generating capacity?

A. Balimela
B. Hirakud
C. Rengali
D. Upper Kolab
E. Upper Indravati

Answer: E. Upper Indravati

Q2) In which state of India is the yield rate of sugarcane the highest?

A. Haryana
B. Karnataka
C. Maharashtra
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: E. Maharashtra

Q3) Which one of the following pairs of lakes and associated areas is not correctly matched?

A. The Suraj Tal Spiti Valley: Lahaul and
B. The Pangong Tso Ladakh: Plateau
C. The Tso Moriri: Eastern Himalayas
D. The Wular: Kashmir Valley
E. The Bhimtal: Kumaon Himalayas

Answer: C. The Tso Moriri: Eastern Himalayas

Q4) Which of the following west flowing rivers in India does not drain into the Gulf of Khambat?

A. The Mahe
B. The Mandovi
C. The Narmada
D. The Sabarmati
E. The Tapti

Answer: B. The Mandovi

Q5) Where do the Vindhya Range and the Maikal Hills meet?

A. Amarkantak
B. Champaner
C. Kaimur
D. Rewa
E. Panna

Answer: A. Amarkantak

Q6) With which of the following states in India does Bangladesh share the longest part of its International boundary?

A. Assam
B. Meghalaya
C. Tripura
D. Mizoram
E. West Bengal

Answer: E. West Bengal

Q7) Which of the following streams does not belong to the Mahanadi drainage system?

A. The Bhargabi
B. The Daya
C. The Kuakhai
D. The Kushabhadra
E. The Salia

Answer: E. The Salia

Q8) What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain given below?


A. The population of tiger increases
B. The population of grass decreases
C. Tiger will start cating grass
D. The population of tiger decreases and the population of grass Increases

Answer: D. The population of tiger decreases and the population of grass Increases

Q9) Depletion of ozone is mainly due to:

A. Chlorofluorocarbon Compounds
B. Carbon Monoxide
C. Methane
D. Pesticides

Answer: A. Chlorofluorocarbon Compounds

Q10) Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

A. Pond
B. Crop field
C. Lake
D. Forest

Answer: B. B. Crop field

Q11) Which among the following is the largest river system among the Deccan system of rivers?

A. Godavari
B. Cauvery
C. Krishna
D. Periyar

Answer: A. Godavari

5. Statik GK( India and Odisha)

Q1) Where is the archipelago of the Great Barrier Reef located?

A. Australia
B. Chile
C. Thailand
D. The Bahamas

Answer: A. Australia

Q2) Which among the following matches of Dams and their corresponding states is not correct?

A. Tungabhadra Dam- Karnataka
B. Tawa Dam- Rajasthan
C. Tehri Dam- Uttarakhand
D. Mullaperiyar Dam- Kerala

Answer: B. Tawa Dam: Rajasthan

Q3) As per the Census 2011, which of the following States has the highest density of population?

A. West Bengal
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Mizoram
D. Bihar

Answer: D. Bihar

Q4) Which of the following is a traditional folk dance form of Maharashtra?

A. Lavani
B. Garba
C. Ghoomer
D. Route Nacha

Answer: A. Lavani

Q5) A series of floating islands called Phumdis are found in which of the following lake of India?

A. Chilika lake
B. Sambar lake
C. Loktak lake
D. Kolleru lake

Answer: C. Loktak lake

Q6) Which is the largest completed hydro- electricity project in India?

A. Koyna
B. Nathpa Jhakri
C. Shrisailam
D. Tehri

Answer: A. Koyna

Q7) Which of the following is the largest tribal group in India?

A. Bhils
B. Bodos
C. Gonds
D. Santhals

Answer: A. Bhils

Q8) Which of the following tribal groups mainly inhabit in Central Part of India?

A. Bhils
B. Chenchus
C. Gonds
D. Mundas
E. Santhals

Answer: C. Gonds

Q9) Which of the following days is observed as a World Day on the 14th November?

A. World Diabetes Day
B. World Pneumonia Day
C. World Television Day
D. World Toilet Day
E. World Vegan Day

Answer: A. World Diabetes Day

Q10) Which of the following folk dance forms of India is indigenous to the Bodo tribes of Assam?

A. Bagurumba
B. Bhortal
C. Chang Lo
D. Cheraw
E. Singhi Cham

Answer: A. Bagurumba

Previous General Knowledge:

Question for you

Q) Which of the following is not a classical dance form of India?

A. Kathak
B. Manipuri
C. Dandia
D. Odissi

Thank You

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